In your opinion, is the easement in Roman law an independent property law? What goals did the legislator pursue by introducing the concepts of “pre-servitude” and “personal servitude”? What is the difference between the rules on easement in Roman law and the norms on easement in the Civil Code of the Russian Federation?

After payment you will be available a link to the solution of this problem in the file of MS Word. It should be noted that the problem solutions put up for sale were successfully handed over in the period 2009-2019 and could be outdated. However, the general algorithm will always remain true.